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Maybe they take issue with the word "glowing", which doesn't usually refer to invisible electromagnetic radiation

I was going to say the same.

It's true that the image isn't fiction or a purely fabricated "artists rendering" from data. But it's also true that "filmed" and "glowing" are unusual ways to refer to what happened.

You don't usually say filmed when talking about recording uv or microwaves etc. You technically could, and probably back when film was actually how uv was recorded a few people working in the field probably did, but almost no one else does, or no one at all since decades, which means the author of the title is the one out of step, not the people reading it.

They actually recorded something, and this title is misleading. Both things are true.


When I worked in a lab that took videos with a UV camera, I still called them videos, and I would absolutely have said that I took a video of the subject (a methanol flame in this case).

Essentially every color photograph you have ever seen is a composite of a red photographic, a green photograph, and a blue photograph.


Incredibly easy to explain this without trying hard. The subject has some sense of movement forwards, and the brain rationalises it, like we do in dreams, imagining a tunnel or a canoe or whatever familiar thing is associated with that feeling of drifting or flying. So we can conclude that maybe near death experiences cause a feeling of falling or drifting, and is a bit like dreaming - not that objective reality should be rejected.

We're talking past each other. The problem isn't coming up with a hypothesis of why experiences differ according to experiences. Start by explaining how there can be any experience at all after an hour without oxygen to the brain. But after that we come to a stage where experiences differ so much that they aren't reconcilable in one objective reality and that's what I tried to address.

> Start by explaining how there can be any experience at all after an hour without oxygen to the brain.

Some cells are still technically alive after 1 hour mark in the sense that there is no necrosis and cell membrane is still operating. This depends on cell type and nourishment - for example cells that have high amount of CoQ10 can live longer etc.

In any case, brain is definitely NOT 100% dead in a sense that ALL of its cells are necrotic which might explain why it is in a dream like state.

Also, I doubt 1 hour mark is regular thing in NDE.


How would we determine that the experience happened during that time and not as a memory created when oxygen reached the brain after, or so on? If you assume that narrative memory is a little bit hallucinated (which I think is pretty observable, try dissociating a little and you can experience it) then many options are on the table.

> Start by explaining how there can be any experience at all after an hour without oxygen to the brain.

Besides the clear possibility that the memory forms later, the brains of people who report NDEs have never stopped - there is no report of anyone ever recovering from brain death (as in, from a basically flat EEG).


I don't think so, because Anthropic now has your question, the steps it tried, and the solution that finally worked, all in text form, already on their servers thanks to your claude session. Claude usage is itself a goldmine of training data.

Ish. If I have it generate code for me that doesn't work and I don't tell it why it's garbage and don't share my cleaned up results on github after, it doesn't know how or why the code that was output was bad, or even that it was.

They didn't describe the model, they described (accurately) the behaviour. They are useful descriptors of behaviour.

Don't forget that you can also write code by hand

I thought the article could have been interesting if it cross-referenced with temperature, sadly it was quite basic.

No, late february is not the depths of winter, it's the very end of winter

Right—in Ireland (to which I have just moved).

In Upstate New York (from which I have just moved), February is the depths of winter. The temperature there can plunge to -10°F (for the highs) for a week straight. It's not until early April that you're really guaranteed to see things thawing for good. (March can be a crapshoot; sometimes it's looking like spring, with warm breezes and birds returning, and other times you get 4 feet of snow dumped on you. In the same week.)

The maritime climate of the British Isles makes an enormous difference to the climate they experience—certainly as compared to the continental US, and to a lesser degree as compared to continental Europe. It's actually kind of fascinating teasing apart which of our cultural truisms about seasons originated on this side of the Atlantic Ocean, vs which ones were developed once we had colonized the New World.


Welcome to Ireland

You are incorrect. Winter starts on the ~21st of December. By the time February rolls around, we are only 6 weeks into the 12-week season of winter. The start of February is precisely the depths of winter. Late February is the ⅔ mark, and the third week of March is the very end.

they don't fit, because 'yes' was not supposed to be used in the context of 'yes it is a mistake', yea was. Having two words helped stop that ambiguity.

It's confusing because it was stated wrongly.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yes_and_no#The_Early_English_f...

Yes contradicts the negative question. So "Is this not a mistake?" should be contradicted with "yes, it is a mistake" or affirmed with "no, it is not a mistake".

It's further confusing because we have the idiom of suggesting things politely in a tentative manner such as isn't this a mistake? which has lost its sense of negativity and has come to mean "this is a mistake, I think," as opposed to being parsed literally to mean "this is not-a-mistake, I think".


Very interesting.

From Wikipedia:

> English had a four-form system, comprising the words yea, nay, yes, and no. Yes contradicts a negatively formulated question, No affirms it; Yea affirms a positively formulated question, Nay contradicts it.

> Will they not go? — Yes, they will.

> Will they not go? — No, they will not.

> Will they go? — Yea, they will.

> Will they go? — Nay, they will not.

So, this has obviously simplified. But what I find interesting is that English speakers from the Philippines or from a Russian background chose differently (where SME is standard modern English, and PRE is Philippine/"Russian" English):

Will they not go? — SME: Yes, they will. PRE: No, they will. [Not sure about that one.]

Will they not go? — SME: No, they will not. PRE: Yes, they will not. [I hear this all the time from non-native English speakers.]

Will they go? — SME/PRE: Yes, they will.

Will they go? — SME/PRE: No, they will not.

ETA from Wikipedia :-)

> In December 1993, a witness in a court in Stirlingshire, Scotland, answered "aye" to confirm he was the person summoned, but was told by a sheriff judge that he must answer either yes or no, or else be held in contempt of court. When asked if he understood, he replied "aye" again, and was imprisoned for 90 minutes for contempt of court. On his release he said, "I genuinely thought I was answering him."


I'm trying to parse the extra "not" in archaic holdovers vs plain modern English. It seems to carry a subtext.

Modern "Are you happy now?" is said with sarcastic tone, to spoil happiness. Would be archaically "Are you not happy?" As if to dare contradiction. It's loaded, unlike when saying sympathetically "Are you unhappy?"

Others:

"Are you not entertained?" "Are you not the very same Smith that dwelt at Haversham?" "Prick me, do I not bleed?"

But commonly: "Are you not a Christian?" most likely seems direct, but said in a formal sense, "rhetorically", an exhortation to act like one.


This is brand new open source software with like 3 stars on github


The UK has positioned itself almost uniquely poorly in Europe. That is why its government bond prices are trading at a premium to the others.


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