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I want to know the same thing. Doesn't the printer manufacturer license these patents so each user does not have to themselves? I just can't understand how this bs is allowed.


It's in the article.


I couldn't find that addressed in the article, could you be a little more specific about where?


About halfway on the 2nd page:

"Second: Farney said that his client is going after scanner users, not to avoid doing battle with big scanner makers like HP and Canon but because there’s no other use for the patents. Because of the way the patents are written, MPHJ actually can’t go after scanner manufacturers. Only the whole “system”—putting the scanner together with a network—infringes.

“The devices can be used in plenty of non-infringing ways," Farney explained. "Several of the major manufacturers have talked to us about these patents, and they agree with us. The product they sell is not infringing. It’s putting the whole system together. If you have an office scanner that scans with one button, is hooked up to a network, and can send e-mail—you infringe.""




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