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> Again I have to emphasize: I am not saying this is the case, only that it is a possibility that needs to be taken into account when doing the moral calculus.

An important thing to note about babies is that at some point in the past few months they objectively couldn't feel anything, despite having a human body.

So the question is when those various things switch over, not if.



> An important thing to note about babies is that at some point in the past few months they objectively couldn't feel anything, despite having a human body.

Is that actually true (if by "human body" you mean a humanoid body, rather than the vacuous-in-this-context sense of a body of a human)? I wouldn't be surprised if the ability to feel developed earlier than the human-like body.


I mean it's the same body they have later, and it's made of human cells.

Maybe it looked like a fish at the time, I wasn't trying to be specific in that way.

There's a very good chance 'humanoid' comes before 'feeling' but I don't want to get too deep into the weeds.




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